Stoneleigh--

As always, thank you for putting together an incredible amount of information on financial issues.

Do you have any idea on how many re-finances, including ARMs, are recourse loans? In a purchase money security interest, where you get an initial mortgage to buy a house, the loan is normally non-recourse, i.e. if the buyer can't repay, he can just walk and the lender must look to the security (the house) to recoup his losses). However, I had understood many (if not most) re-fi's were recourse, i.e. the lender can get a judgement againt the homeowner for any shortfall between the loan amount and what the lender realizes from the foreclosure sale of the asset. And judgements are often good for 10 years and can be renewed for another ten, so the judgement follows the homeowner for a long time and threatens any later-acquired assets.

When re-fi's are for 100% of equity, I would think recourse loans are the only way a lender would lend, but if the lender is simply intending to sell off the loan as quickly as possible, maybe having recourse to the borrower became less important. At any rate, if a high percentage of these re-fi's are recourse, I would think any recovery from the coming crash would be even slower.

Rick

Rick,

A very good question. Though not exactly our forté.

I put it to Tanta at Calculated Risk, who has an amazing depth of knowledge in these matters, and she was gracious enough to reply within the hour. I'll quote her entire response here, and thank her very kindly.

In a purchase money security interest, where you get an initial mortgage to buy a house, the loan is normally non-recourse

I see that claim made a lot. It is true that, for instance, in California purchase money loans are non-recourse. That is not universally true; such laws are made at the state level. There is a certain Californiacentric view of the world.

Where recourse limitations on purchase money exist, they tend to make lenders more cautious about purchase money loans, since it is true that you cannot get a deficiency judgment (the technical term here) when foreclosure proceeds are less than the loan amount. That cautiousness went away in the boom in some quarters. Now lenders are remembering why such laws are on the books. That's the point, by the way: the law doesn't say you can't lend 100% of value. The law lets lenders be stupid. It just doesn't let lenders make upside down loans with the idea that the upside down part is "secured" by the borrower's other assets. The law basically says that the house is the only security you have on a purchase money loan, so you should make sure that the appraised value is good and the borrower is creditworthy.

I know of no jurisdiction in which there are recourse limitations on refinances, except for Texas cash-outs, and trust me, we don't want to talk about Texas cash-outs. But the important point is that no one in any jurisdiction can get a deficiency judgment without doing a judicial foreclosure. (You must plead before a judge to get a judgment.)

So "trustee sales" or non-judicial FCs don't result in deficiency judgments because they can't. They are, however, much cheaper and faster than judicial FC. So a lender has to really have a big dollar amount at stake to go judicial when the state allows nonjudicial (like CA). Some states do require all judicial FCs, like Ohio. Those are the states in which deficiency judgments are most likely to occur, because you're always in court anyway.

Bottom line: if lenders preferentially sought judicial FCs just so they could get a judgment against the borrower, it would certainly slow down the "clearing" of the REO market, given how it would extend the FC timeframe. However.

I have no reason to believe lenders will do that. It costs them more than the judgment is worth. The usual practice is that lenders seek a deficiency judgment only when they believe that the loan was fraudulent. That is, when there is some evidence that cash assets are there, but the borrower won't use them to make mortgage payments with.

Not "fraudulent" in the sense of "the borrower lied." A whole lot of borrowers lied, but the problem is they don't have the money they said they had and it is a giant waste of time and money to get judgements they'll never pay. You pursue deficiency against those who claim they don't have the money that you think they do have, like those operators who put their assets in sham "trusts" prior to default and then tell the lender they're broke.

That help?

Cheers, Tanta

Hi Tanta--

Thank you for an excellent and thorough response. I agree that non-judicial foreclosure is faster and more common and that judicial foreclosure makes no sense with sub-prime borrowers since they have no assets to pursue. However, as foreclosures spread to A borrowers and as collateral values plummet, it will be interesting to see if lenders resort to judicial foreclosures more often to try to lessen their losses.

Rick

Hi Tanta--

One more thought on the issue of deficiencies between loan amount and realized sale price on non-judicial foreclosure: to the extent the foreclosing lender choses methods that do not allow it to pursue the homeowner for any deficiencies, the difference may constitute 'debt forgiveness' in the eyes of the IRS and become taxable income to the foreclosed homeowner. Granted, it is better to owe 20-25% of the debt amount than 100%, but this will effectively be new money owed the IRS which is just tacked onto the tax bill.